Muhammed ( S.A.W) might have received revelation. But could it not have been Satanic revelations?

MM AKBAR
      
Many Christian critics  have alleged that the revelation received by Muhammad (e) were, in fact, from the Satan himself. It has been the endeavour of the Christian writers like C.D. Fander, Claire Tisdal, Joshmach Dowell, John Gilchrist and G. Nehless to portray the revelations received by Muhammad ( S.A.W) as being the insinuations of the Devil. They advocate the idea that it had been the attempt of the Devil to confine man within the pitfalls of sin by way of denying the cruicifixion of Jesus Christ and the atonement of sin through it, that stands behind the verses of the Qur'an. Can the Devil infest the human body? Can a person be afflicted with disease owing to his possession by the Devil? Will a person possessed by the Devil have the experience of revelation? Such discussions are irrelevant here. By the dictum of the Bible, then, let us consider the disorders that manifest themselves in the person possessed by the Devil :

1. Screaming aloud owing to the affliction of the brain (Mark 1:24,         Luke 9:39, John 10:20)

2. Suicidal tendency (Mathew 9,18:17, 15:32, Mark 5:13, Luke             8:33)

3. Tendency to walk naked (Luke 8:2, 8:35)

4. To be pushed aside by the Devil (Mathew 17:15, Mark 1:26,              9:18, 9:20, 9:26)

5. Dumbness (Mark 9:25, 9:32, 12:22, Luke 11:14)

6. Deafness (Mark  9:25)

7. Blindness (Mathew 12:22)

8. To see that which others do not and to know that which others don't  (Mark 1:24, Luke 4:3, Mathew 8:29)

None of the symptoms of the one possessed by the Devil, which are described in the Bible, is seen in the person of Muhammad ( S.A.W). One of the evidences cited by those who allege that Muhammad ( S.A.W) was possessed by the Devil has been his own statement that the divine revelation sometimes came to him in the form of the ringing of a bell and that this form of revelation was the hardest for him. Another evidence cited has been the saying of Aysha (rا), the wife of the Prophet, that she saw beads of perspiration on the forehead of the Prophet when the revelation came upon him on a very cold day. Here, there is an important question that is to be considered. Does the Bible say, in any place, that the one possessed by the Devil feels the ringing of a bell in his ears or that his forehead is dampened with the wetness of perspiration even in extreme cold? If it does not, then what, indeed, is the basis on which the followers of the Bible allege satanic possession against the Prophet?

Those who say that the divine message received by the Prophet was the production of a Devilish possession, are, in fact, actually forced to say that their own holy men are themselves possessed by the Devil.

'St. Paul' had been the one who had actively laboured to destroy Jesus as well as the ideals that he propagated (Acts of the Apostles 9:1, 26:10, 8:1) as long as he remained on the earth, after which it was that he came forward with the claim that Christ had appeared to him in a vision. Observe the description in the Bible of the way in which he had received this vision of Christ: 'As he neared Damascus on his journey, suddenly a light from heaven flashed around him. He fell to the ground and heard a voice say to him, 'Saul, Saul, why do you persecute me?'

'Who are you, Lord ?'  Saul asked. 'I am Jesus, whom you are persecuting.' He replied. 'Now get up and go into the city, and you will be told what you must do.'

The men travelling with Saul stood there speechless, they heard the sound but did not see anyone. Saul got up from the ground, but when he opened his eyes he could see nothing. So they led him by the hand into Damascus. For three days he was blind, and did not eat or drink anything.' (Acts of the Apostles 9:3-9)

We have seen that the Bible indicates the falling down to the ground, seeing that which others do not see and hearing that which others do not hear as being the symptoms of a devilish possession. In the incident wherein Paul claimed that he saw Christ, he had experienced all these symptoms too. But will the Christian world accept it if it was now claimed that Paul himself had been possessed of the Devil? The Christian critics will never be able to produce even a single shred of evidence from the Bible to conclusively assert that Muhammad ( S.A.W) was possesed by the Devil. On the other hand, however, it can be shown, using the Bible, that Paul, the real founder of the present-day Christian faith, had been subjected to the insinuations of the Satan. Then who is it, now, who was actually possessed of by the Devil ?

Now, examine the very corner-stone of the Christian allegation that the Qur'an had come to be written because of the Satanic influences that moved Muhammad ( S.A.W). After all, it has been only because of the Qur'anic denunciation of the concept of salvation through the crucifixion of Jesus Christ that the Qur'an has been alleged to be a satanic creation. What, then, is the reality? Both Christians and Muslims believe that Jesus was of a pure and unblemished character. Both groups are agreed upon the fact that he had been appointed  by God Almighty Himself. Further still, both affirm that he was not possessed by the Devil. If such is the case, then why should we not compare the teachings of Jesus Christ with those of Paul and Muhammad ( S.A.W) in order to analyze as to who it was - Paul or Muhammad ( S.A.W) - who was afflicted by the insinuations of the Satan. For any person in receipt of a revelation from the Devil must, of a necessity, be an enemy of Jesus; going by the consideration that the antagonist of a messenger from God will naturally be the antagonist of the message that he conveys.

Jesus said: 'Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the prophets' (Mathew 5:17)

The Qur'an says, 'It was We who revealed the Torah (to Moses): therein was guidance and light.' (5:44)

'And remember, Jesus, the son of Mary, said: 'O Children of Israel! I am the messenger of Allah (Sent) to you, confirming the Taurat (which came) before me, and giving Glad Tidings of messenger to come after me, whose name shall be Ahmad.'' (61:6)

Paul had written, 'Christ redeemed us from the curse of the Law.' (Galatians 3:13)

'By abolishing in his flesh the law with its commandments and regulations.' (Ephesians 2:15)

Jesus said that he came not to destroy the law; the Qur'an, too, says the same. As for Paul, he contends that Jesus had come to save the world from the law. Who indeed, is the one who recieved the revelation of Satan ?

Jesus Christ had never taught that he was God. (Mark 12:29, Mathew 4:10). The Qur'an, too, reiterates this beyond the shadow of a doubt. (3:51). But Paul had stated thus, 'Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with, God something to be grasped.' (Philippians 2:6) and 'He is the image of the invisible God, the first born over all creation.' (Colossians 1:15). Jesus had never received any revelation that stated that he himself was God. Even if he did receive such a revelation, he would certainly have made it known. But Paul seems to have received a 'revelation' declaring Jesus to be God. Whence, indeed, must that 'revelation' have proceeded ?

The Bible described the circumcision as a covenant which God had made with Abraham. The Lord had instructed Abraham about the circumcision as follows: 'As for you, you must keep my covenant, you and your descendants after you for the generation to come.'' (Genesis 17:9-14). The Bible quotes God as having told Moses, ''On the eighth day the boy is to be circumcised.'' (Leviticus 12:3). Jesus, too, had observed this divine commandment: 'On the eighth day, when it was time to circumcise him .....' (Luke 2:21) Jesus had never instructed anyone against the circumcision. This had been for the simple reason that he had never received such a revelation in the first place. But observe what Paul says: '.... if you let yourselves be circumcised Christ will be of no value to you at all.' (Galatians 5:2). Whence did Paul receive this 'revelation' ? Of a certainty, not from God,if not, then where from indeed?

The major reason behind the allegation that Muhammad (e) had his revelations from the Devil has been that the Qur'an refuted the crucifixion and salvation of humanity through the sacrifice of a single individual. There are numerous verses in the Qur'an wherein Jesus and his mother have been praised and have found the most reverential mention. It may also be remembered that Maryam has been the only woman to be referred by name in the Qur'an. The Qur'an further describes even the miracle wrought through Jesus which has not been recorded in the Bible like his having breathed life into birds of clay (3:49). The incident wherein the baby Jesus had spoken from his cradle which the Qur'an describes (19:30) is not mentioned anywhere in the Bible. There is nothing in the Qur'an that serve to tarnish the lofty character of Jesus. Here it is especially relevant that according to the Gospel of John, the first miracle of Christ had been that he had produced wine at a marriage function in Canaan (John 2:1-11). There is, however, no such reference in the Qur'an.

The Biblical concept has been that '... anyone who is hung on a tree is under God's curse.' (Deuteronomy 21:23). The Jews had thought that they had had Jesus accursed by way of impaling him onto the cross. Paul, too, says the same thing. 'Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by becoming a curse for us, for it is written: 'Cursed is everyone who is hung on a tree.'' (Galatians 3:13). It follows from this that the crucifixion has only served to make of Jesus an accursed person. But the Qur'an does not accept the idea that Jesus had become so accursed for the sins of the whole world. How can anyone believe that God never heard the prayer of Jesus which he made in order that he be saved from the accursed wooden cross (Mathew 29:39) without believing in the very rejection of divine mercy to Jesus? The Qur'an, however, teaches that God had, by way of saving Jesus from the accursed wooden cross, undermined the conspiracy of the Jews. (4:157,158)

The Jews contend that Jesus had become accursed by way of his being impaled upon the cross.

Paul contends that Jesus had become accursed by way of his dying upon the cross.

The Qur'an contends that God saved Prophet Jesus from the cross.

Which among these is the revelation of the Satan? Is it the one which glorifies Jesus or is it the one which makes of him an accursed person?

In short, therefore, the stark reality is that those who strive to produce proofs to the effect that the Qur'an's has been a satanic  revelation, have kept falling into the pitfalls of their own making.